Okay, so Tex thinks that our food intolerances are triggered when our MC is triggered, right?
So, my question is: If someone is suffering from "IBS" like symptoms or just has intermittent irritation in the gut, do they already have an IBD? I was thinking that they have inflammation from eating foods that they are intolerant to. Can't that be the case without actually having a IBD? I'm confused.
Leah
question about "IBS"..... Tex?
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Leah wrote:Okay, so Tex thinks that our food intolerances are triggered when our MC is triggered, right?
Well, actually that comes from Dr. Fines work, and it can be found on his website.
In answer to your question, if someone actually has chronic inflammation, then by definition, they have an IBD (Inflammatory Bowel Disease). "Inflammatory" is the key word and if the inflammation is chronic, that defines an IBD, and it distinguishes the issue from other forms of enteritis that are transient in nature (rather than chronic), such as bacterial infections, viruses, etc.
IMO, that definition doesn't leave much room for the existence of the concept of "IBS". Since "IBS" has been shown to involve inflammation (all this is in my book, by the way, if you want to read the references), then either "IBS" is an IBD, or "IBS" doesn't exist.
Tex
It is suspected that some of the hardest material known to science can be found in the skulls of GI specialists who insist that diet has nothing to do with the treatment of microscopic colitis.
Sure, lactose intolerance, ballbladder disease, and low stomach acid are three common examples.Leah wrote:Can people have digestion problems ongoing without having an IBD then?
Tex
It is suspected that some of the hardest material known to science can be found in the skulls of GI specialists who insist that diet has nothing to do with the treatment of microscopic colitis.