Hi Polly,
Sorry. I realize that I sometimes commit so much mayhem with syntax. that it becomes difficult to pinpoint what my main point actually might be. LOL. My main point is in my first sentence in that post, (in red, in the following quote):
This is the article that supports my claim that MC patients often "segue" from one "form" to the other, (that is, from CC to LC, for example), and that MC is, in fact, a single disease, and not two or three, or more, related diseases:
I don't believe that Dr. Fine mentions anything about one form of MC changing to another form, on his website, and the reason that he doesn't mention it, is probably because he realizes that it's irrelevant, for reasons that I will describe in the following paragraphs. What he does say is, "
These are three terms used to describe essentially the same syndrome. Microscopic colitis is the most general term and the one I prefer." Notice his choice of words, "
essentially the same syndrome". And when you read his discussion, you will note that he only uses the term MC, (not CC and /or LC). I think that if he had his druthers, there would be no diagnoses of CC, and/or LC. There would be only MC.
That's my point. There's only one disease here - MC. The fact that it sometimes can be diagnosed in different ways, doesn't really matter, does it? The clinical symptoms are the same, and the treatment is the same, in all cases. If it quacks like a duck, and has diarrhea like a duck, etc., etc.
Look at the common cold. It can be a head cold, with a stuffy nose, and watery eyes, or it can be a chest cold, with congested bronchial tubes, etc, and one type can segue to the other. It can be caused by a rinovirus, adenovirus, or coronavirus. That's much more variability than is involved with MC, but the condition is still called a cold. If we don't need to distinguish between the different types of what we call a "cold", then why would we need to distinguish between different types of MC?
IOW, the fact that MC segues from one form to another, is irrelevant, because it's still the same disease - the basic clinical symptoms haven't changed, nor has the treatment. Once you recognize that fact, then a lot of the unnecessary and complicated relationships that are involved with this disease, become irrelevant.
Regarding your observation:
It is like the celiac/gluten sensitivity issue. In reality they may be the same disease with similar genetics and the same treatment, but on clinical tests the findings are different (positive blood test in celiac but not in gluten sensitivity).
Here again, is there any logical reason to believe that this is not the same disease? The cause is the same, the symptoms are the same, and the treatment is the same. (It's hard ot keep from adding the phrase "well duh!", at this point). The fact that the medical profession chooses to diagnose them differently, will eventually have to be corrected, and brought into compliance with reality. After all, a diagnosis for gluten sensitivity will catch all celiacs, in the process. Will it not?
The defining marker in a celiac diagnosis is villous atrophy, but even this has been shown to be present in many cases that were missed by the blood tests, and if I remember correctly, some celiacs don't present with significant villous atrophy, even though they test positive to the blood test. Even though classic celiac disease and gluten sensitivity may affect the digestive system in different ways, the results are the same, as far as morbidity and general health are concerned, and the treatment is the same. The definition of celaic disease needs to be changed, and the current accepted standard for diagnosing celiac disease needs to be upgraded to catch
all gluten sensitive individuals.
Sorry to get off on a tangent. LOL.
Love,
Tex